Later tonight, I'll be talking about the Davis case on the San Francisco-based call-in show, Live from the Left Coast with Angie Coiro, roughly at 6:30 pm Pacific/9:30 pm East coast this evening. You can listen live at 960 am in SF or over the web.
Update: That was interesting, at least for me. The podcast will be available tomorrow. I'll post a link then.
Meanwhile, the column got picked up by Mark Cuban on his blog. Now the question is how I can cash that in for courtside tickets to the Knicks-Mavs game in Madison Square Garden on Jan. 24!
Posted by Mike Dorf
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Hi there,
Not a law student (yet), so forgive me for a lack of proper vocabulary.
But when you say:
"In his dissent in Davis, Justice Scalia argues that even if the Court were now to hold that there is a right of the innocent not to be executed, Davis cannot take advantage of that rule."
Can one conclude that Scalia's application of the intent of the law he cites goes beyond the scope of this case?
Scalia says the "sentence would violate already "clearly established Federal law, as determined by the Supreme Court of the United States."
However the intent of that is not to measure every single law in every instance. In fact knowingly executing the innocent violates other laws of the United States,
and unless the law he is citing explicitly overturns that law, it can't be made to violate it.
That's just my basic knowledge of the law; it seems Stevens had a more specific point to make, but even that to me goes too far.
You can't use the law to commit murder,and unlike abortion, or the death penalty in general,
this fits the bill for murder.
Good call on the irony. Conservative judges think technical rules -- excluding evidence, etc. -- do nothing but cloud the over-riding fact of the matter: guilt.
But when it comes to a clear case the other way -- innocence -- somehow it's ok to rationalize away the fundamental fact.
All of this does make me wonder about what Scalia really means. The guy before you (a reporter) said something like, "we shouldn't take this to mean that Scalia would ignore DNA evidence clearly establishing innocence."
So I guess we'll just have to see -- was Scalia taking a position, or was he merely stating a fact (the court hasn't decided the question)?
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